Posted by Tom B. on January 26, 2001 at 18:45:08:
The post below on the Yamaha vs. Besson made me think of this...
About compensating systems...I understand the logic and theory behind them, but I'm still left with questions...
Why is it that compensating systems are used on and advertised on Besson and Willson horns as opposed to something like Miraphone, Cerveney, Meinl Weston, etc?
Does using a compensating system only become necessary for top action horns?
Why is it that compensating euphoniums are so commonly used and said to be superior to non-compensating euphoniums, but with tubas you rarely hear of compensating systems?