Posted by Scott on June 02, 2001 at 16:55:25:
In Reply to: Re: Re: Re: Re: Best tuba for low range posted by Jay Bertolet on June 02, 2001 at 13:27:08:
Since the subject has been brought up, I also have been wondering about the mathematical proof that was given a few weeks ago about compensating instruments being more in tune than non-compensators. My questions are:
1. Have you taken into account out-of-tune partials? In my experience, the vast majority of compensators out there don't have partials that are in tune like non-compensators.
2. When you say that the compensator is more in-tune, does one have a tendency to be sharp while the other is flat? This is important because sharp notes are easier to lip in tune than flat ones.
3. I've noticed that as one gets better at slide-pulling, it is possible to adjust the slides until the notes move quickly enough where most listeners wouldn't hear the intonation problems. When you are speaking of intonation of compensators vs. non-comps, do you somehow take this into account, or did you calculate with the idea that neither player would pull slides (keeping in mind that the reason why a lot of people don't like compensators is because they don't have a free hand for tuning slide adjustments)?
Thanks,
Scott