Is there a Gap?


[ Follow Ups ] [ Post Followup ] [ TubeNet BBS ] [ FAQ ]

Posted by Mark in Ohio on December 22, 2000 at 13:30:25:

And to keep the pundits at bay: Yes, I know there's a Gap at the local mall. I'm talkin' 'bout my tuba

A few observations and thoughts 'been kicking around in my head for a while; the post below about the Adj Gap reciever, and an earlier post about Martin leadpipe adjustability via "bits" prompts me to ask:

Do most tubas have a gap at all? I've probed in the receivers of a couple of tubas w/ an un-bent paper clip. While you can feel where the lead pipe starts within the receiver, there is not necessarily always a change in bore there at the starting "end" of the leadpipe. In theory (see those Schillke pages) the change should be exactly enough to account for the thickness of the metal at the end of the Mpc shank, such that when the mpc shank ideally butts against the pipe there is a seamless transition from the backbore into the horn- no "steps" in the bore.

However, some tubas seem to have the receiver already butting against the pipe making that stepless bore impossible. Of course I only have checked a few horns (so far a Conn, a York, and a Euro rotary - all 'gapless'). I don't really know what proportion of tubas out there do or don't have the authentic leadpipe step that's supposed to be there.

To clarify my posting, I fully understand the Adj. Gap Receiver concept, and believe in it's influence on response (I hope to try one myself somneday). My post is asking about WHY the Horns are built differently at the receiver end.

Given the wavelengths WE deal with, how could it possibly affect intonation, as Schillke claims?

Any insight on this, Designer & repair guys? Matt W?

Curiously,

Mark "don't get me started about sousaphone bits & leadpipes" Mazak


Follow Ups: