Posted by Joe Baker on November 30, 2001 at 14:51:58:
In Reply to: Re: False tones... posted by Rick Denney on November 30, 2001 at 12:04:31:
The most convincing explanation I've seen made for false-tones is that the horn is acting as a 'third of a pipe' rather than as a half-pipe. The bell remains an antinode, but there would then be a node 1/3 of the way back to the mouthpiece. If so, it seems to me that the fundamental would be missing entirely, and would only be inferred from the overtones.
Joe Baker, who is anxious to see if Rick's spectral analysis supports this notion.